Tap a card to show the answer. Subjects are ordered by their share of the board exam.
12% of the board exam, shared with Nutrition, Immunizations & Well-Child Care
Under age 2, what low weight-gain velocity is included in the faltering-weight definition? _____.
Answer: Below −2 z scores for age
For a child born preterm, use _____ when tracking milestones through about age 2 years.
Answer: corrected (adjusted) age
By what age do most children hold their head up while lying on their tummy? _____.
Answer: 2 months
Cognitive Milestones · Developmental Screening & Delay · Growth Faltering · Head Growth & Skull · Language & Social Milestones · Milestone Cases · Motor Skills & Reflexes · Physical Growth · School Support & Learning · Toilet Training & Elimination
All 324 Growth & Development cards →
12% of the board exam, shared with Growth, Nutrition & Well-Child Care
Varicella vaccination is compatible with _____; breastfeeding does not need to stop.
Answer: breastfeeding
A child with HIV without severe immunosuppression receives _____.
Answer: 2 doses of single-antigen varicella vaccine ≥3 months apart
Varicella-containing vaccines (varicella, MMRV) must be stored _____ (−50 to −15 °C); MMR may be refrigerated or frozen.
Answer: frozen
DTaP,Tdap & Td · HPV · Hepatitis A · Hepatitis B · Hib · Influenza · MMR · Meningococcal · Pneumococcal (PCV & PPSV) · Polio (IPV) · Rabies · Rotavirus · Schedule & General Principles · Varicella
All 174 Immunizations & Post-exposure Prevention cards →
12% of the board exam, shared with Growth, Immunizations & Well-Child Care
Milk recommendation for a healthy 3-year-old? _____
Answer: Up to 24 oz a day of unflavored skim or low-fat milk.
Human milk minerals largely independent of maternal intake? _____
Answer: Calcium, iron, zinc
How do GLP-1 receptor agonists help reduce weight? _____.
Answer: Less appetite, more satiety
Breastfeeding & Supplements · Infant Feeding · Nutrition Support & Calculations · Obesity & Cardiometabolic Risk · Special Diets & Formula · Vitamins
All 123 Nutrition cards →
12% of the board exam, shared with Growth, Nutrition & Immunizations
Inactive child beginning a fitness plan → how to advance? _____
Answer: Begin modestly; build duration and intensity gradually
Breastfeeding beyond 12 months — especially frequent _____ feeding after other foods are introduced — increases the risk of early childhood caries.
Answer: night-time
Is routine TB testing universal for all healthy children? _____.
Answer: No—risk-based
Dental Health · Foster Care · Safety & Injury Prevention · Screening & Well Visits · Vision & Hearing
All 85 Well-Child Care & Prevention cards →
9% of the board exam (6% mental health, 3% psychosocial)
Most adolescent overdose deaths now involve which drug, often hidden in counterfeit pills made to look like oxycodone or alprazolam? _____
Answer: Illicitly made fentanyl.
First-line psychotherapy for adolescents with repeated nonsuicidal self-injury? _____
Answer: Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT).
Higher ACE count → population pattern for later disease and risky behavior? _____
Answer: Risk rises in a graded way with more ACEs
ADHD,Autism & Tics · Anxiety,OCD,Trauma & Somatic · Disruptive Behavior (ODD & Conduct) · Family,School & Media · Mood,Psychosis & Self-Harm · Parenting,Discipline & Toddler Behavior · Sleep · Substance Use
All 287 Behavioral & Mental Health cards →
7% of the board exam (4% emergency care, 3% child abuse)
For a child who is still convulsing after two adequate benzodiazepine doses, what is the next medication step? _____
Answer: Give a second-line IV antiseizure loading drug.
For an infant aged 6 months or younger with suspected physical abuse, what head imaging is obtained even without obvious head-injury symptoms? _____
Answer: Noncontrast head CT.
Should treatment of symptomatic newborn hypoglycemia wait for laboratory confirmation? _____
Answer: No. Treat promptly while obtaining confirmatory plasma glucose.
Asthma Pathway · BRUE · Bites & Wounds · Burns,Drowning & Environmental · Button Battery Pathway · Dental Trauma · Febrile Infant Pathway · Maltreatment & Child Abuse · Newborn Hypoglycemia Pathway · Pediatric Stroke Pathway · Physical Abuse Evaluation Pathway · Resuscitation & Critical Care · STI Panel · Seizure Pathways · Shock · Toxicology · Trauma & Orthopedics
All 456 Emergency Medicine cards →
IV artesunate for severe malaria → usual onset window of delayed hemolysis? _____
Answer: About 7–30 days after starting
Infant + thrush + severe hypoxia, near-normal lung exam, interstitial infiltrates → pathogen? _____
Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii (PCP)
C. difficile ward outbreak → staff hand hygiene + barriers? _____
Answer: Soap and water, gown and gloves
Bone and Joint · CNS and Invasive Infection · Endemic Fungal Infections · Exposure and Prophylaxis · Fever and UTI · Gastrointestinal Infections · HIV and Immunocompromise · Lymph Nodes and Mycobacteria · Neonatal and Congenital · Parasites and Travel · Rash and Mucocutaneous · Respiratory · Skin Soft Tissue and Toxins · Urinary Tract Infection · Zoonoses and Vector Borne
All 296 Infectious Disease cards →
6% of the board exam, shared with Ophthalmology
Persistent nasal obstruction or discharge with cough for at least 12 weeks suggests which diagnosis? _____
Answer: Chronic rhinosinusitis.
Teen with 4 months of nasal obstruction, purulent discharge and facial pressure despite antihistamine and nasal steroid → test that confirms the diagnosis? _____
Answer: Sinus CT (or nasal endoscopy) — chronic rhinosinusitis.
What three bacteria are common causes of acute otitis media? _____
Answer: S. pneumoniae, nontypeable H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis.
Congenital and Sleep · Ears and Hearing · Nose and Sinuses · Throat and Neck
All 79 ENT cards →
6% of the board exam, shared with ENT
Child with a known RB1 variant develops a new inward-turning eye → most likely additional finding? _____
Answer: Leukocoria (white pupillary reflex) — retinoblastoma.
Chemical splash to the eye → irrigation endpoint? _____
Answer: Neutral pH (7.0–7.5); recheck after 30 minutes.
Child hit in the eye: cannot look up, cheek and upper-lip numbness, crepitus → muscle involved and first study? _____
Answer: Inferior rectus entrapment (orbital floor fracture); CT of the orbits.
Eye Recognition and Emergencies · Visual Development
All 34 Ophthalmology cards →
Early adolescence (11–14 years) is typically marked by _____
Answer: a same-sex peer group and preoccupation with pubertal body changes.
Thin white odorless discharge starting 6–12 months before menarche: wet mount shows epithelial cells, few WBCs and lactobacilli, pH <4.5 → management? _____
Answer: Reassurance (physiologic leukorrhea).
Recurrent one-sided lower abdominal pain at mid-cycle, lasting hours to 2 days, with a normal exam → diagnosis? _____
Answer: Mittelschmerz (ovulation pain).
Breast Conditions · Contraception · Development,Consent & Safety · Eating Disorders & RED-S · Menstrual & Gynecologic Problems · PID & Pregnancy Infections · Puberty & Normal Development · STIs & Vaginal Discharge
All 163 Adolescent Medicine cards →
Which innocent murmur is musical or vibratory at the lower left sternal border and becomes softer with standing? _____
Answer: Still’s murmur.
Which outflow lesion has a left-upper-sternal ejection murmur and a pulmonary ejection click that may soften with inspiration? _____
Answer: Valvar pulmonary stenosis.
In Williams syndrome, is the classic aortic narrowing at the valve or above it? _____
Answer: Above the valve: supravalvular aortic stenosis.
Acquired Disease & Prevention · Acute Cardiac Care · Cardiac Genetics · Chest Pain & Syncope · Congenital Heart Disease · Murmurs & Heart Sounds · Rhythm & ECG
All 177 Cardiology cards →
Earlier gestational age at birth → inguinal hernia likelihood? _____
Answer: Increased; greatest in the most preterm
Most common eye manifestation of Crohn disease? _____
Answer: Episcleritis (red, painless; follows bowel activity).
Acute viral hepatitis with symmetric arthralgia or arthritis and urticaria → which virus does this favor? _____
Answer: Hepatitis B (serum-sickness-like immune-complex prodrome).
Feeding Stooling and Hydration · Gastritis and H pylori · Hepatitis · Ingestions and Esophagus · Liver Biliary and Pancreas · Malabsorption and IBD · Neonatal and Surgical GI
All 190 Gastroenterology cards →
Child with a daily WET cough for more than 4 weeks, otherwise well, normal chest X-ray → likely diagnosis and treatment? _____
Answer: Protracted bacterial bronchitis; 2 weeks of amoxicillin–clavulanate.
Bacterial tracheitis → lateral neck film findings? _____
Answer: Shaggy tracheal wall, intraluminal membranes, subglottic narrowing
In a child with dysphagia and recurrent choking, persistent fever and new lung infiltrates suggest which infection? _____
Answer: Aspiration pneumonia.
Asthma and Devices · Bronchiolitis · CF and Ciliary Disease · Pneumonia and Aspiration · Rare and Systemic Lung Disease · Stridor and Airway
All 119 Pulmonology cards →
Nevus of Ota → ongoing surveillance involves _____.
Answer: periodic eye and skin examinations
Alopecia areata → commonly associated conditions? _____
Answer: Autoimmune thyroid disease, vitiligo, atopy; Down syndrome
Common wart → in-office destructive options? _____
Answer: Cryotherapy or cantharidin
Eczema & Scaling Disorders · Genetic Skin Disorders · Infections & Infestations · Newborn & Infant Skin · Pigment Disorders · Reactive & Inflammatory Rashes · Systemic Disease Clues · Vascular Birthmarks
All 257 Dermatology cards →
Knee buckling + displaced patella + lateral apprehension → _____.
Answer: patellar dislocation/instability
Common cause of acquired torticollis → _____.
Answer: neck muscle spasm/inflammation or injury
Small, stable idiopathic scoliosis curve → usual plan? _____.
Answer: Observation with follow-up during growth
Ankle & Soft Tissue · Bone Lesions · Foot & Rotational Variants · Hip & Limp · Knee & Overuse · Spine & Neck · Sports Clearance · Sports Safety & Nutrition · Upper Limb
All 212 Musculoskeletal & Sports Medicine cards →
Neonatal mortality covers deaths before _____.
Answer: 28 days of age
New apnea in a preterm infant → before labeling it prematurity, _____.
Answer: evaluate for infection and other secondary causes
Preterm infant + low-volume granular lungs + air bronchograms → _____.
Answer: neonatal respiratory distress syndrome
Birth Injuries & Neurology · Circulation & Resuscitation · Congenital Anomalies & Eyes · Endocrine & Jaundice · Exposures & Teratogens · Growth & Newborn Examination · Infection & GI Emergencies · Maternal & Fetal Assessment · Respiratory Disorders
All 266 Neonatology cards →
Adolescent + optic neuritis + separate neurologic deficits + old/new demyelinating lesions → _____.
Answer: multiple sclerosis
Ataxia + areflexia + lost vibration/proprioception + hypertrophic cardiomyopathy → _____.
Answer: Friedreich ataxia
Suspected DMD → useful initial blood test? _____.
Answer: Creatine kinase (CK)
Brain & Spine Malformations · Brain Death Determination · Cerebral Palsy & Hydrocephalus · Demyelination & Acute Ataxia · Headache · Neuromuscular Disorders · Seizures & Epilepsy · Stroke & Vascular Disease · Trauma & Peripheral Nerves
All 234 Neurology cards →
Itchy rash, fever, facial edema, eosinophilia and raised liver enzymes 4 weeks after starting lamotrigine → diagnosis? _____
Answer: Drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS).
Child with a history of anaphylaxis to penicillin needs delabeling: first step? _____
Answer: Penicillin skin testing before any oral challenge.
Which virus reactivates in DRESS? _____
Answer: Human herpesvirus 6.
Anaphylaxis · Angioedema · Antibody Disorders · Combined Immune Disorders · Drug Hypersensitivity · Food Allergy & Testing · Immune Foundations · Phagocytes & Complement
All 120 Allergy & Immunology cards →
Antibodies typical of chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis? _____
Answer: Thyroid peroxidase and thyroglobulin
An infant has lethargy, hypothermia, constipation and a large fontanelle after missed newborn screening. Which endocrine disorder needs urgent testing? _____
Answer: Congenital hypothyroidism.
Fatigue, salt craving, weight loss and hyperpigmentation with hypotension suggest which endocrine failure? _____
Answer: Primary adrenal insufficiency.
Adrenal & Endocrine Hypertension · Bone & Mineral Disorders · Diabetes · Growth · Obesity & Metabolic Health · Pituitary & Water Balance · Puberty & Sex Development · Thyroid Disorders
All 283 Endocrinology cards →
3% of the board exam, shared with Oncology
No birth vitamin K + exclusive breastfeeding → why VKDB risk? _____
Answer: Breast milk contains little vitamin K
Which organ is the major fetal source of erythropoietin, and which predominates after birth? _____
Answer: Fetal liver → postnatal kidneys.
Anemia + high retics + low haptoglobin + high LDH and unconjugated bilirubin → mechanism? _____
Answer: Hemolysis
Chemotherapy · Coagulation & von Willebrand · Fever and Neutropenia · Hemolysis & Hemoglobinopathies · Iron Deficiency & Microcytosis · Marrow Failure & Neutropenia · Oncologic Emergencies · Platelet Disorders · RBC Basics · Sickle Cell Disease · Stem Cell Transplantation · Transfusion
All 209 Hematology cards →
Red blood cell casts on urinalysis → bleeding source? _____
Answer: Glomerulus (nephritic process)
What acid–base pattern should make you consider renal tubular acidosis after excluding GI bicarbonate loss? _____
Answer: Hyperchloremic, normal-anion-gap metabolic acidosis.
AAP 2017 → hypertension cutoffs by age? _____
Answer: 1–<13 y: ≥95th %ile or ≥130/80 (lower); ≥13 y: ≥130/80
Acute Kidney Injury & Toxins · Hematuria & Glomerulonephritis · Hypertension · Proteinuria & Nephrotic Syndrome · Tubular Disorders & Acid Base
All 67 Nephrology cards →
3% of the board exam, shared with Hematology
Diffuse infantile hepatic hemangiomas: which two systemic complications must be assessed? _____
Answer: High-output heart failure and consumptive hypothyroidism.
Most common single site of neuroblastoma metastasis? _____
Answer: Bone.
Childhood cancer survivor treated with cisplatin: which surveillance? _____
Answer: Audiometry after therapy, then every 5 years.
Abdominal Tumors · Bone & Soft Tissue Tumors · CNS Tumors · Histiocytosis · Leukemia & Lymphoma · Oncologic Emergencies · Treatment Effects & Survivorship
All 94 Oncology cards →
3% of the board exam (genitourinary, incl. gynecology)
Normal nonretractable foreskin → when does retractability usually develop? _____
Answer: Gradually through childhood; may persist into adolescence
For a child bothered by monosymptomatic nocturnal enuresis, what are the main active treatment options after bowel/bladder habits are addressed? _____
Answer: An enuresis alarm or desmopressin, selected with the child and family.
Boy with suspected urethral valves → confirmatory imaging study? _____
Answer: Voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG)
Congenital Urinary Anomalies · Genital & Scrotal Conditions · Obstruction & Stones · Voiding & Urethral Disorders
All 82 Urology cards →
2% of the board exam, shared with Patient Safety & QI
An observational study groups children by exposure and compares later disease outcomes. What design is this? _____
Answer: A cohort study.
Researchers select children with a disease and controls without it, then compare past exposures. What design is this? _____
Answer: A case-control study.
A patient has a positive screening result. Which measure asks how likely that positive result is to represent disease? _____
Answer: Positive predictive value (PPV) = TP / (TP + FP).
Diagnostic Tests · Study Design & Statistics
All 22 Biostatistics & Epidemiology cards →
2% of the board exam, shared with Metabolic Disorders
Malformations occurring together more often than chance, no single unifying cause → term? _____
Answer: Nonrandom co-occurrence of malformations beyond chance
Which sutures most often fuse prematurely in Apert syndrome? _____.
Answer: Both coronal sutures
Classic osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) type I → usual inheritance? _____.
Answer: Autosomal dominant
Chromosome & Imprinting Disorders · Craniofacial & Developmental Patterns · Genetic Syndromes · Growth & Overgrowth · Immune & DNA Repair Disorders · Inheritance Patterns · Inherited Blood Disorders · Inherited Kidney Disorders · Multisystem Syndromes · Neurocutaneous & Tumor Predisposition · Skeletal & Connective Tissue
All 234 Genetics cards →
Healthy 14-year-old, parent carries BRCA1 → predictive testing now? _____
Answer: Defer testing until adulthood (18 in this case)
Dying teen wants unproven drug: possible harm, no evidence of benefit → declining rests on? _____
Answer: Nonmaleficence
What are the four core principles of medical ethics? _____.
Answer: Autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence and justice
Consent & Confidentiality
All 16 Medical Ethics cards →
2% of the board exam, shared with Genetics
Teen with Achilles thickening/tendon symptoms + high LDL → look for _____.
Answer: tendon xanthomas
Menkes disease → defective copper-transporter gene? _____.
Answer: ATP7A
Normal alpha-galactosidase A activity excludes Fabry in a symptomatic female? _____.
Answer: No; evaluate GLA genetically
Amino Acids · Galactose & Glycogen · Lipids & Copper · Lysosomal Lipid Disorders · Mitochondria & Energy · Mucopolysaccharidoses · Nitrogen & Purines · Organic Acidemias & Biotin
All 183 Metabolic Disorders cards →
2% of the board exam, shared with Biostatistics
A team removes waiting and unnecessary steps between an IV-fluid order and delivery. Which improvement approach fits best? _____
Answer: Lean.
Which safety method maps a process and predicts how its steps might fail before another harmful event occurs? _____
Answer: Failure modes and effects analysis (FMEA).
Video visit for sore throat, possible strep → key limitation? _____
Answer: Cannot replace needed in-person exam and testing
Patient Safety · Quality Improvement & Care Delivery
All 21 Patient Safety & Quality Improvement cards →
Drug-induced lupus onset → right after starting drug or after months? _____
Answer: After months of therapy
Teen with a cool, mottled, swollen, very sensitive foot weeks after a minor sprain; normal labs → first-line treatment? _____
Answer: Intensive physical therapy (keep moving, desensitization), with CBT.
Chronic destructive sinonasal symptoms, lung nodules and glomerulonephritis suggest which vasculitis? _____
Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA).
Dermatomyositis · Hypermobility and Pain · JIA and Arthritis · Kawasaki Disease · Lupus and Connective Tissue · Periodic Fever and MAS · Vasculitis
All 88 Rheumatology cards →
Tested within the other subjects
Two products are bioequivalent when they match in which measures? _____
Answer: Rate and extent of absorption.
A caregiver stops a child's medicine because she misunderstood the plan: which adherence category? _____
Answer: Family-related factors.
Which diuretic raises lithium levels? _____
Answer: Hydrochlorothiazide (thiazides).
Adverse Drug Reactions · Antimicrobial Safety · Drug Interactions · Opioid Safety · Pharmacokinetics · Practical Pain Control · Sedation Agents and Topical Anesthesia · Sedation and Monitoring
All 85 Pharmacology & Pain Management cards →
